I have a question about a seller re-neging on an agreement. I bought one horse from a woman who is getting out of horses, and has several to sell by fall. I already had two minis, and told her beforehand that I had to sell them before I bought either of her two horses I was interested in. She said that she would sell me the 2 yr. Old, and when she delivered him, she would take my two minis to her place, and sell them for me free of charge---then with the money from them, I agreed to purchase her 17 yr. Old TWH---who is due to foal in May. Well, the minis haven't sold yet, but there has been some interest. The problem is, I am using a farrier of my choice---not the farrier she has always used. Because of this, she has decided that she does not want to sell the mare to me---she thinks only the farrier she uses will do proper trimming and is afraid the horses' feet will be ruined. However, a local boarding stable and two other families with horses have been using this farrier I chose for at least a few years. One of the families even has a TWH! I told her all this, but now she says she doesn't want to sell to me because I am a novice with horses. It is true that these are my first own horses, but I have a niece who has worked with horses 12 years who will be helping me. Well, we did not have an agreement in writing, but how would any of you respond to this? Not only that, but this woman wants to charge me $50 to bring the minis back---remember, this agreement was all her idea---I was going to simply sell them on my own, and then buy the horses, but she thought she would have better luck selling them because she used to have a boarding stable and is known in the area. How would you feel?